Sunday, August 16, 2009

Question about the housing bubble/financial crisis.

If the housing bubble and financial crisis can be attributed to a small incentive to give a small percentage of home loans to poor borrowers in the US, why did UK and Germany have bubbles and crashes, too, and why did UBS and RBS have their own subprime crises? I mean it seems like an obvious way to debunk the "deregulation and 'innovation' were great it was the liberals' fault for trying to help poor people."

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